**84,800 was the exact level where the last 3-month consolidation top formed—yet your TP sits 750 below it.** If this is truly a "rejection" setup, wouldn’t you expect the next leg to at least test the prior high before rolling over? Or is the assumption that liquidity dries up *before* that level even touches?
*(Question: What’s the structural reason you’re targeting 84,035 instead of the obvious 84,800 resistance?)* Thoughts?